Viewed in the context of the time period, was the behavior of Christopher Columbus after "discovering America" excusable or even acceptable?

The Spanish are prosperous and still populous, and more than a fair bit of their post 16th Century history was greased by the fat of the New World, while the Carib Indians are still as dead as… well, Carib Indians.

So clearly Christopher Columbus' actions are not only excusable but also acceptable.